05-02-2013, 02:28 AM
(This post was last modified: 05-02-2013, 02:28 AM by tarulestheday.)
(05-02-2013, 01:21 AM)Investor1979 Wrote: Would someone explain how someone can write /sell that many calls, unless they own the underlying shares, such as the market makers. Would they own that many shares or are they regular shareowners, who have sold the calls and must then give up their shares, when the shorts exercise them TIA
The MM are obligated to take the other side of the trade. Otherwise they would not be a MM for the stock.

